I'm only asking here because I imagine the "other side" here can at least grok the REASONING behind such a concept. Someone posted this at RPW for discussion. Since it's been established by law now that a man can rape his wife, can he also be guilty of "sexually harrassing" her? This is not trolling, or snark or anything rude, it is a genuine question asked in hopes there are people who understand this kind of reasoning here.

Edit: to be clearer, by "can rape his wife" I mean be legally prosecuted for the specific crime of rape, not engage in behavior that could be reasonably described as "rape" to an outside observer.