This is an argument I see semi-regularly here so I wanna address it. In some context it makes sense to make this argument, it depends on what its replying to. But in many cases it's a pretty meaningless thing to say.

If the social norm was that for some reason it's only acceptable for men to be in a relationship once they go on a year long barefoot journey, there would still be roughly the same amount of men and women in heterosexual monogamous relationships. Or perhaps an even better example is that back in the days when women were literally treated as property, there were still roughly the same amount of women and men in heterosexual monogamous relationships.

It's often an irrelevant thing to highlight, just on it's own it most definitely does not disprove that there could be inequalities, asymmetries and for example unique difficulties in dating that mostly apply to men and not women (or the other way around).