How do you reconcile AF/BB and the fact that most men engage in sexual behavior long before marriage?

If AF/BB is true how is it that most men in Western/ non Western but liberal developed societies engage in sexual behavior long before marriage?

AF/BB hypothesized that only a small percent of men (5-20%) have sex appeal to women outside of being providers, and thus engage in sexual behavior with women since puberty. The rest of the men (80-95%) are left high and dry until around 30 when they are seen as potential marriage prospects and providers.

However empirical data tells us that 50-75% of men have erotic interactions of some kind in puberty and then lose their virginity before 20 to a woman. Most of these men should have been kissless virgins if AF/BB is true but its clear they aren't.

So the strict account of AF/BB and the empirical data regarding men's sexual development cannot be correct at the same time. How do you reconcile this?