My wife and I are getting a divorce. We have been married for 18 years, with 2 kids. My wife stopped working after our second child was born approximately 10 years ago. My question is about asset allocation. Historically , I have made much more money than she has about 5 to 10 times as much. This was only possible because I went to school for approximately twelve years prior to meeting by wife to become a physician. We both went into the relationship with essentially little assets. I went in with $200,000 of student loan debt. Before we married, we discussed prenuptial agreement. However, we decided not to go through with that.

At this point we've been married for 18 years, with two children, she essentially zero assets, and I have several million dollars from saving and investing.

Most state laws are 50 50 or equitable asset allocation. I feel in my situation this is unfair, as I was the one that generated all of the income and wealth, and none of this would have been possible without the years of schooling and training that precluded our marriage.

In other words, if you take our assets currently and divide them equally, that essentially means that her labor as a homemaker, is equal to my labor as a physician in value. Alternatively, had I made an enormous amount of money such as jeff bezos then again, her value as a homemaker would have been equal to that of Jeff Bezos. On the other end of the spectrum had, I made very little money, her value as a homemaker would have been the value of someone with very little money.. To me, this does not make rational sense. Can someone help explain this to me. I'm not saying that she should get a much smaller percentage, but 50 50 split does not seem to make sense in this situation.