I keep seeing this brought up, especially in more female oriented subreddits such as r/TwoXChromosomes & others. The discussion normally follows this pattern.

Misandry does not exist.
Yes it does.
No; There is no systemic oppression of men

And then devolves into back-and-forths about definitions, connotations, etc. This is a motet-and-bailey fallacy, where they say something inflammatory and then convert it to more defensible position. I'm not sure if they know the mechanics of their argument or are making it in good faith, but they certainly know the effect it gets because I've seen this exact debate play out over a dozen times.

But here's my position

1. Misandry is not "systemic oppression of men". It's any negative prejudice towards men. This fundamentally, obviously exists - even in more innocent forms such as the generalized anxiety some women might feel when alone with a man. But it also exists is less innocent forms such as the denial of sexual violence towards men.
2. Systemic oppression of men does exist, actually. In many places. Men are broadly treated worse in the legal system (both criminal and civil) & only men are registered for the draft. Men account for 93% of occupational fatalities, and yet this is rarely discussed meanwhile similar sex-based imbalances are talked about routinely in media. And more.
3. To the people that still disagree and think misandry does not exist; please tell me what the term is for someone that is prejudiced towards men.

The existence of misandry is not a denial of misogyny nor is it meant to evaluate which is worse.