Genuinely curious. I know for sex workers that it’s rape by deceit to have sex and not pay afterwards . Since men can’t waive their rights to be responsible in any way , form or fashion for children kept by moms (even if it was made known that the man wouldn’t be in the child’s life ), can men sue or pursue criminal charges of rape by deception if , say , he’s a high earning man and she agreed to take the pill, but chose not to afterward ?

Remember when Drake put hot sauce in his condom in case a girl tried to fish out his semen and inseminate herself ? Would that classify as rape by deception if she managed to get pregnant ? I mean it was unlawfully obtained semen meant to forcibly have his child in hopes of a hefty monetary payout , would this count ? I’m interested to hear answers .

Edit : I personally see not paying sex workers after the sex is fraud / scamming , I just watched this video and got the idea for this post . Again , I personally consider it a contract violation , as others said , over full on rape .