This is a genuine question I’d like to discuss, no gotchas here.

Women have evolved with a hypergamous sexual selection, they date men who are higher status and “better” than them.

However, until very recently, they had no choice in who they mated with. Even when our modern instincts were being formed, they were honestly more or less at the whims of whichever man took them. After that, their marriages were mostly arranged.

So, my question is, how did they develop instincts to only be attracted to men who are better, if they never had a choice at all until recently?

Conclusions I thought of that maybe make sense:

This evolution was a recent development?

They simply cheated and actually had the baby of the man they were actually attracted to and had the arranged marriage man raise the baby. ( Plausible but this seems so dangerous and risky, as if the man finds out he will likely have killed her and the kids, and this would have had to of happened en masse to keep the selection evolution going ).

They simply didn’t have as many kids as the ones who were with men they did actually see as better?